Name: 
 

REVIEW SEMESTER EXAM Fall 2008


Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
Chemistry is defined as the study of the composition and structure of materials and
a.
the categories of matter.
c.
the electrical currents in matter.
b.
the changes in matter.
d.
molecules in living things.
 

 2. 
Chemistry is the study of all of the following EXCEPT
a.
matter.
c.
energy associated with changes in matter.
b.
changes in matter.
d.
projectile motion.
 

 3. 
The study of substances containing carbon is
a.
organic chemistry.
c.
nuclear chemistry.
b.
inorganic chemistry.
d.
analytical chemistry.
 

 4. 
Which statement is NOT true about applied research?
a.
It is conducted to meet goals defined by specific needs.
b.
It is usually carried out to solve a practical problem.
c.
It is the study of how and why a specific reaction occurs.
d.
It may not be driven primarily by scientific curiosity or a desire to know.
 

 5. 
Which statement is NOT true about basic research?
a.
It is carried out for the sake of increasing knowledge.
b.
It is carried out to solve a specific problem.
c.
It is the study of how and why a specific reaction occurs.
d.
It may be driven by scientific curiosity alone.
 

 6. 
Matter includes all of the following EXCEPT
a.
air.
c.
smoke.
b.
light.
d.
water vapor.
 

 7. 
A physical property may be investigated by
a.
melting ice.
c.
allowing silver to tarnish.
b.
letting milk turn sour.
d.
burning wood.
 

 8. 
Chemical properties
a.
include changes of state of a substance.
b.
include mass and color.
c.
include changes that alter the identity of a substance.
d.
can be observed without altering the identity of a substance.
 

 9. 
An example of an extensive physical property is
a.
mass.
c.
color.
b.
density.
d.
boiling point.
 

 10. 
A chemical change occurs when
a.
dissolved minerals solidify to form a crystal.
b.
ethanol is purified through distillation.
c.
salt deposits form from evaporated sea water.
d.
a leaf changes color.
 

 11. 
The particles in a solid are
a.
packed closely together.
c.
constantly in motion.
b.
very far apart.
d.
able to slide past each other.
 

 12. 
The state of matter in which a material has definite shape and definite volume is the
a.
liquid state.
c.
gaseous state.
b.
solid state.
d.
vaporous state.
 

 13. 
A substance classified as a fluid contains particles that
a.
quickly expand into any available space.
b.
are held in fixed positions.
c.
may slide past each other.
d.
are very far from each other.
 

 14. 
A list of pure substances could include
a.
bread dough.
c.
vitamin C (ascorbic acid).
b.
vinegar (5% acetic acid).
d.
sea water.
 

 15. 
Physical means can be used to separate
a.
elements.
c.
mixtures.
b.
pure substances.
d.
compounds.
 
 
semexamreviewfall20_files/i0170000.jpg
 

 16. 
Based on their location in the figure above, oxygen and selenium have
a.
the same number of neutrons.
c.
similar properties.
b.
the same conductivity.
d.
the same number of electron orbitals.
 

 17. 
Use the figure above. Which element has properties most similar to those of sodium?
a.
boron
c.
sulfur
b.
calcium
d.
nitrogen
 

 18. 
Based on its location in the figure above, you could infer that ____ is very unreactive.
a.
Ca
c.
Si
b.
P
d.
Ar
 

 19. 
A horizontal row of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n)
a.
group.
c.
family.
b.
period.
d.
octet.
 

 20. 
Elements in a group in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a.
atomic masses.
c.
numbers of neutrons.
b.
atomic numbers.
d.
properties.
 

 21. 
All of the following are steps in the scientific method EXCEPT
a.
observing and recording data.
b.
forming a hypothesis.
c.
discarding data inconsistent with the hypothesis.
d.
developing a model.
 

 22. 
Which of the following observations is quantitative?
a.
The liquid turns blue litmus paper red.
c.
The liquid tastes bitter.
b.
The liquid boils at 100ºC.
d.
The liquid is cloudy.
 

 23. 
A testable statement used for making predictions and carrying out further experiments is a
a.
law.
c.
generalization.
b.
theory.
d.
hypothesis.
 

 24. 
A theory is best described as a
a.
series of experimental observations.
b.
generalization that explains a body of known facts or phenomena.
c.
scientifically proven fact.
d.
testable statement.
 

 25. 
All but one of these units are SI base units. The exception is the
a.
kilogram.
c.
liter.
b.
second.
d.
Kelvin.
 

 26. 
The metric unit for length that is closest to the thickness of a dime is the
a.
micrometer.
c.
centimeter.
b.
millimeter.
d.
decimeter.
 

 27. 
The liter is defined as
a.
1000 m3.
c.
1000 g3.
b.
1000 cm3.
d.
1000 c3.
 

 28. 
A volume of 1 cubic centimeter is equivalent to
a.
1 milliliter.
c.
1 liter.
b.
1 gram.
d.
10–1 cubic decimeters.
 

 29. 
The most appropriate SI unit for measuring the length of an automobile is the
a.
centimeter.
c.
meter.
b.
kilometer.
d.
liter.
 

 30. 
To determine density, the quantities that must be measured are
a.
mass and weight.
c.
volume and concentration.
b.
volume and weight.
d.
volume and mass.
 

 31. 
The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/cm3. The volume of a solid piece of aluminum is 1.50 cm3. Find its mass.
a.
1.50 g
c.
2.70 g
b.
1.80 g
d.
4.05 g
 

 32. 
The density of pure diamond is 3.5 g/cm3. The mass of a diamond is 0.25 g. Find its volume.
a.
0.071 cm3
c.
3.5 cm3
b.
0.875 cm3
d.
14 cm3
 

 33. 
10–2 meter is the same as
a.
1 hectometer.
c.
0.1 centimeter.
b.
10 millimeters.
d.
1000 micrometers.
 

 34. 
1.06 L of water is equivalent to
a.
0.001 06 mL.
c.
106 mL.
b.
10.6 mL.
d.
1060 mL.
 

 35. 
Convert –25ºC to the kelvin scale.
a.
–323.15 K
c.
248.15 K
b.
–248.15 K
d.
323.15 K
 

 36. 
If some measurements agree closely but differ widely from the actual value, these measurements are
a.
neither precise nor accurate.
b.
accurate, but not precise.
c.
acceptable as a new standard of accuracy.
d.
precise, but not accurate.
 

 37. 
To two significant figures, the measurement 0.0255 g should be reported as
a.
0.02 g.
c.
0.026 g.
b.
0.025 g.
d.
2.5 ´ 102 g.
 

 38. 
The number of significant figures in the measurement 0.000 305 kg is
a.
3.
c.
5.
b.
4.
d.
6.
 

 39. 
The number of significant figures in the measured value 0.003 20 g is
a.
2.
c.
5.
b.
3.
d.
6.
 

 40. 
The number of significant figures in the measurement 170.040 km is
a.
3.
c.
5.
b.
4.
d.
6.
 

 41. 
Three samples of 0.12 g, 1.8 g, and 0.562 g are mixed together. The combined mass of all three samples, expressed to the correct number of significant figures, should be recorded as
a.
2.4 g.
c.
2.482 g.
b.
2.48 g.
d.
2.5 g.
 

 42. 
When 6.02 ´ 1023 is multiplied by 9.1 ´ 10–31, the product is
a.
5.5 ´ 10–8.
c.
5.5 ´ 10–7.
b.
5.5 ´ 1054.
d.
5.5 ´ 10–53.
 

 43. 
If values for x and y vary as an inverse proportion,
a.
their quotient is a constant.
c.
their product is a constant.
b.
their graph is a parabola.
d.
their graph is a straight line.
 

 44. 
Two variables are directly proportional if their ____ has a constant value.
a.
sum
c.
quotient
b.
difference
d.
product
 

 45. 
Visible light, X rays, infrared radiation, and radio waves all have the same
a.
energy.
c.
speed.
b.
wavelength.
d.
frequency.
 

 46. 
For electromagnetic radiation, c (the speed of light) equals
a.
frequency minus wavelength.
c.
frequency divided by wavelength.
b.
frequency plus wavelength.
d.
frequency times wavelength.
 

 47. 
In SI, the frequency of electromagnetic radiation is measured in
a.
nanometers.
c.
hertz.
b.
quanta.
d.
joules.
 

 48. 
Electromagnetic radiation behaves like a particle when it
a.
travels through space.
c.
interacts with photons.
b.
is absorbed by matter.
d.
interacts with other radiation.
 

 49. 
One of the wave properties of electromagnetic radiation, such as light, is
a.
volume.
c.
mass.
b.
frequency.
d.
weight.
 

 50. 
According to the particle model of light, certain kinds of light cannot eject electrons from metals because
a.
the mass of the light is too low.
c.
the energy of the light is too low.
b.
the frequency of the light is too high.
d.
the wavelength of the light is too short.
 

 51. 
As it travels through space, electromagnetic radiation
a.
exhibits wavelike behavior.
c.
varies in speed.
b.
loses energy.
d.
releases photons.
 

 52. 
If electromagnetic radiation A has a lower frequency than electromagnetic radiation B, then compared to B the wavelength of A is
a.
longer.
b.
shorter.
c.
equal.
d.
exactly half the length of B's wavelength.
 

 53. 
The distance between two successive peaks on a wave is its
a.
frequency.
c.
quantum number.
b.
wavelength.
d.
velocity.
 

 54. 
A quantum of electromagnetic energy is called a(n)
a.
photon.
c.
excited atom.
b.
electron.
d.
orbital.
 

 55. 
The wave model of light did not explain
a.
the frequency of light.
c.
interference.
b.
the continuous spectrum.
d.
the photoelectric effect.
 

 56. 
The energy of a photon, or quantum, is related to its
a.
mass.
c.
frequency.
b.
speed.
d.
size.
 

 57. 
Planck's constant
a.
depends on the frequency of the radiation.
b.
depends on the mass of the radiation.
c.
depends on the wavelength of the radiation.
d.
is the same for all forms of radiation.
 

 58. 
The emission of electrons from metals that have absorbed photons is called the
a.
interference effect.
c.
quantum effect.
b.
photoelectric effect.
d.
dual effect.
 

 59. 
A line spectrum is produced when an electron moves from one energy level
a.
to a higher energy level.
b.
to a lower energy level.
c.
into the nucleus.
d.
to another position in the same sublevel.
 

 60. 
The spectral lines of hydrogen in the ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum are called
a.
principal series.
c.
Lyman series.
b.
Balmer series.
d.
Paschen series.
 

 61. 
When the pink-colored light of glowing hydrogen gas passes through a prism, it is possible to see
a.
all the colors of the rainbow.
c.
four lines of different colors.
b.
only lavender-colored lines.
d.
black light.
 

 62. 
A bright-line spectrum of an atom is caused by the energy released when electrons
a.
jump to a higher energy level.
b.
fall to a lower energy level.
c.
absorb energy and jump to a higher energy level.
d.
absorb energy and fall to a lower energy level.
 

 63. 
Because excited hydrogen atoms always produce the same line-emission spectrum, scientists concluded that hydrogen
a.
had no electrons.
b.
did not release photons.
c.
released photons of only certain energies.
d.
could only exist in the ground state.
 

 64. 
The Bohr model of the atom was an attempt to explain hydrogen's
a.
density.
c.
mass.
b.
flammability.
d.
line-emission spectrum.
 

 65. 
For an electron in an atom to change from the ground state to an excited state,
a.
energy must be released.
b.
energy must be absorbed.
c.
radiation must be emitted.
d.
the electron must make a transition from a higher to a lower energy level.
 

 66. 
If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the atom is in the
a.
ground state.
c.
excited state.
b.
inert state.
d.
radiation-emitting state.
 

 67. 
Bohr's theory helped explain why
a.
electrons have negative charge.
b.
most of the mass of the atom is in the nucleus.
c.
excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colors of light.
d.
atoms combine to form molecules.
 

 68. 
Bohr's model of the atom works best in explaining
a.
the spectra of the first ten elements.
b.
only the spectrum of hydrogen.
c.
only the spectra of atoms with electrons in an s orbital.
d.
the entire visible spectra of atoms.
 

 69. 
According to the Bohr model of the atom, the single electron of a hydrogen atom circles the nucleus
a.
in specific, allowed orbits.
b.
in one fixed orbit at all times.
c.
at any of an infinite number of distances, depending on its energy.
d.
counterclockwise.
 
 
semexamreviewfall20_files/i0720000.jpg
 

 70. 
According to Bohr, electrons cannot reside at ____ in the figure above.
a.
point A
c.
point C
b.
point B
d.
point D
 

 71. 
According to the quantum theory, point D in the figure above represents
a.
the fixed position of an electron.
b.
the farthest point from the nucleus where an electron can be found.
c.
a position where an electron probably exists.
d.
a position where an electron cannot exist.
 

 72. 
The French scientist Louis de Broglie believed
a.
electrons could have a dual wave-particle nature.
b.
light waves did not have a dual wave-particle nature.
c.
the natures of light and quantized electron orbits were not similar.
d.
Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom was completely correct.
 

 73. 
Louis de Broglie's research suggested that
a.
frequencies of electron waves do not correspond to specific energies.
b.
electrons usually behave like particles and rarely like waves.
c.
electrons should be considered as waves confined to the space around an atomic nucleus.
d.
electron waves exist at random frequencies.
 

 74. 
Which model of the atom explains why excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colors of light?
a.
the Bohr model
c.
Rutherford's model
b.
the quantum model
d.
Planck's theory
 

 75. 
Which model of the atom explains the orbitals of electrons as waves?
a.
the Bohr model
c.
Rutherford's model
b.
the quantum model
d.
Planck's theory
 

 76. 
The region outside the nucleus where an electron can most probably be found is the
a.
electron configuration.
c.
s sublevel.
b.
quantum.
d.
electron cloud.
 

 77. 
With the quantum model of the atom, scientists have come to believe that determining an electron's exact location around the nucleus
a.
is impossible.
b.
can be done before 2005.
c.
can be done easily.
d.
can be done only with specialized equipment.
 

 78. 
All of the following describe the Schrödinger wave equation EXCEPT
a.
it is an equation that treats electrons in atoms as waves.
b.
only waves of specific energies and frequencies provide solutions to the equation.
c.
it helped lay the foundation for the modern quantum theory.
d.
it is similar to Bohr's theory.
 

 79. 
Both the Heisenberg uncertainty principle and the Schrödinger wave equation
a.
are based on Bohr's theory.
c.
led to locating an electron in an atom.
b.
treat electrons as particles.
d.
led to the concept of atomic orbitals.
 

 80. 
A three-dimensional region around a nucleus where an electron may be found is called a(n)
a.
spectral line.
c.
orbital.
b.
electron path.
d.
orbit.
 

 81. 
Unlike in an orbit, in an orbital
a.
an electron's position cannot be known precisely.
b.
an electron has no energy.
c.
electrons cannot be found.
d.
protons cannot be found.
 

 82. 
The spin quantum number of an electron can be thought of as describing
a.
the direction of electron spin.
b.
whether the electron's charge is positive or negative.
c.
the electron's exact location in orbit.
d.
the number of revolutions the electron makes about the nucleus per second.
 

 83. 
The set of orbitals that are dumbbell-shaped and directed along the x, y, and z axes are called
a.
d orbitals.
c.
f orbitals.
b.
p orbitals.
d.
s orbitals.
 

 84. 
The p orbitals are shaped like
a.
electrons.
c.
dumbbells.
b.
circles.
d.
spheres.
 

 85. 
An orbital that could never exist according to the quantum description of the atom is
a.
3d.
c.
6d.
b.
8s.
d.
3f.
 

 86. 
The letter designations for the first four sublevels with the number of electrons that can be accommodated in each sublevel are
a.
s:1, p:3, d:10, and f:14.
c.
s:2, p:6, d:10, and f:14.
b.
s:1, p:3, d:5, and f:7.
d.
s:1, p:2, d:3, and f:4.
 

 87. 
The number of possible orbital shapes for the third energy level is
a.
1.
c.
3.
b.
2.
d.
4.
 

 88. 
The number of orbitals for the d sublevel is
a.
1.
c.
5.
b.
3.
d.
7.
 

 89. 
For n = 4, the number of possible orbital shapes is
a.
1.
c.
16.
b.
4.
d.
32.
 

 90. 
For the f sublevel, the number of orbitals is
a.
5.
c.
9.
b.
7.
d.
18.
 

 91. 
The total number of orbitals that can exist at the second main energy level is
a.
2.
c.
4.
b.
3.
d.
8.
 

 92. 
How many orbitals can exist at the third main energy level?
a.
3
c.
9
b.
6
d.
18
 

 93. 
If n is the principal quantum number of a main energy level, the number of electrons in that energy level is
a.
n.
c.
n2.
b.
2n.
d.
2n2.
 

 94. 
How many electrons are needed to completely fill the fourth energy level?
a.
8
c.
32
b.
18
d.
40
 

 95. 
If 8 electrons completely fill a main energy level, what is n?
a.
2
c.
8
b.
4
d.
32
 

 96. 
The statement that an electron occupies the lowest available energy orbital is
a.
Hund's rule.
c.
Bohr's law.
b.
the Aufbau principle.
d.
the Pauli exclusion principle.
 

 97. 
"Orbitals of equal energy are each occupied by one electron before any is occupied by a second electron, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals must have the same spin" is a statement of
a.
the Pauli exclusion principle.
c.
the quantum effect.
b.
the Aufbau principle.
d.
Hund's rule.
 

 98. 
The Aufbau principle states that an electron
a.
can have only one spin number.
b.
occupies the lowest available energy level.
c.
must be paired with another electron.
d.
must enter an s orbital.
 

 99. 
The atomic sublevel with the next highest energy after 4p is
a.
4d.
c.
5p.
b.
4f.
d.
5s.
 

 100. 
In the electron configuration for scandium (atomic number 21), what is the notation for the three highest-energy electrons?
a.
3d1 4s2
c.
3d3
b.
4s3
d.
4s2 4p1
 

 101. 
Which electron configuration is most stable?
a.
3d4 4s2
c.
3d3 4s3
b.
3d5 4s1
d.
3d2 4s4
 

 102. 
The electron notation for aluminum (atomic number 13) is
a.
1s2 2s2 2p3 3s2 3p3 3d1.
c.
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1.
b.
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 2d1.
d.
1s2 2s2 2p9.
 

 103. 
If the s and p orbitals of the highest main energy level of an atom are filled with electrons, the atom has a(n)
a.
electron pair.
c.
ellipsoid.
b.
octet.
d.
circle.
 

 104. 
The number of electrons in the highest energy level of the argon atom (atomic number 18) is
a.
10.
c.
6.
b.
2.
d.
8.
 

 105. 
If the s and p sublevels of the highest main energy level of an atom are filled, how many electrons are in the main energy level?
a.
2
c.
16
b.
8
d.
32
 

 106. 
The idea of arranging the elements in the periodic table according to their chemical and physical properties is attributed to
a.
Mendeleev.
c.
Bohr.
b.
Moseley.
d.
Ramsay.
 

 107. 
Mendeleev left spaces in his periodic table and predicted several elements and their
a.
atomic numbers.
c.
properties.
b.
colors.
d.
radioactivity.
 

 108. 
Mendeleev noticed that properties of elements usually repeated at regular intervals when the elements were arranged in order of increasing
a.
atomic number.
c.
reactivity.
b.
density.
d.
atomic mass.
 

 109. 
Mendeleev predicted that the spaces in his periodic table represented
a.
isotopes.
c.
permanent gaps.
b.
radioactive elements.
d.
undiscovered elements.
 

 110. 
The person whose work led to a periodic table based on increasing atomic number was
a.
Moseley.
c.
Rutherford.
b.
Mendeleev.
d.
Cannizzaro.
 

 111. 
What are the radioactive elements with atomic numbers from 90 to 103 in the periodic table called?
a.
the noble gases
c.
the actinides
b.
the lanthanides
d.
the rare-earth elements
 

 112. 
Argon, krypton, and xenon are
a.
alkaline earth metals.
c.
actinides.
b.
noble gases.
d.
lanthanides.
 

 113. 
Which two periods have the same number of elements?
a.
2 and 4
c.
4 and 5
b.
3 and 4
d.
5 and 6
 

 114. 
The discovery of the noble gases changed Mendeleev's periodic table by adding a new
a.
period.
c.
group.
b.
series.
d.
sublevel block.
 

 115. 
The periodic law states that the physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic
a.
masses.
c.
radii.
b.
numbers.
d.
structures.
 

 116. 
Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a.
atomic masses.
c.
numbers of neutrons.
b.
atomic numbers.
d.
properties.
 

 117. 
A horizontal row of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n)
a.
group.
c.
family.
b.
period.
d.
octet.
 

 118. 
Identify the sublevels in a period that contains 32 elements.
a.
s, f
c.
s, p, d
b.
s, p
d.
s, p, d, f
 

 119. 
Neutral atoms with an s2p6 electron configuration in the highest energy level are best classified as
a.
metalloids.
c.
nonmetals.
b.
metals.
d.
gases.
 

 120. 
Elements in which the d-sublevel is being filled have the properties of
a.
metals.
c.
metalloids.
b.
nonmetals.
d.
gases.
 

 121. 
The elements that border the zigzag line in the periodic table are
a.
inactive.
c.
metalloids.
b.
metals.
d.
nonmetals.
 

 122. 
When an electron is added to a neutral atom, a certain amount of energy is
a.
always absorbed.
c.
either released or absorbed.
b.
always released.
d.
burned away.
 

 123. 
Which represents a neutral atom acquiring an electron in an exothermic process?
a.
A + e– + energy ® A–
c.
A + e– ® A– + energy
b.
A + e– ® A– – energy
d.
A– + energy ® A + e–
 

 124. 
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's
a.
electron affinity.
c.
electronegativity.
b.
electron energy.
d.
ionization energy.
 

 125. 
A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons is called
a.
electron affinity.
c.
electronegativity.
b.
electron configuration.
d.
ionization potential.
 

 126. 
The element that has the greatest electronegativity is
a.
oxygen.
c.
chlorine.
b.
sodium.
d.
fluorine.
 

 127. 
Ionization energy is the energy required to remove ____ from an atom of an element.
a.
the electron cloud
c.
an electron
b.
the nucleus
d.
an ion
 

 128. 
When an electron is acquired by a neutral atom, the energy change is called
a.
electron affinity.
c.
ionization energy.
b.
electronegativity.
d.
electron configuration.
 

 129. 
A positive ion is known as a(n)
a.
ionic radius.
c.
cation.
b.
valence electron.
d.
anion
 

 130. 
A negative ion is known as a(n)
a.
ionic radius.
c.
cation.
b.
valence electron.
d.
anion.
 

 131. 
In a row in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius generally
a.
decreases.
c.
increases.
b.
remains constant.
d.
becomes unmeasurable.
 

 132. 
Within a group of elements, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius
a.
increases.
c.
decreases regularly.
b.
remains approximately constant.
d.
decreases, but not regularly.
 

 133. 
Across a period in the periodic table, atomic radii
a.
gradually decrease.
b.
gradually decrease, then sharply increase.
c.
gradually increase.
d.
gradually increase, then sharply decrease.
 

 134. 
The ionization energies for removing successive electrons from sodium are 496 kJ/mol, 4562 kJ/mol, 6912 kJ/mol, and 9544 kJ/mol. The great jump in ionization energy after the first electron is removed indicates that
a.
sodium has four or five electrons.
b.
the atomic radius has increased.
c.
a d-electron has been removed.
d.
the noble gas configuration has been reached.
 

 135. 
Which is the best reason that the atomic radius generally increases with atomic number in each group of elements?
a.
The nuclear charge increases.
c.
The number of energy levels increases.
b.
The number of neutrons increases.
d.
A new octet forms.
 

 136. 
The ionization energies required to remove successive electrons from one mole of calcium atoms are 590 kJ/mol, 1145 kJ/mol, 4912 kJ/mol, and 6474 kJ/mol. The most common ion of calcium is probably
a.
Ca+.
c.
Ca3+.
b.
Ca2+.
d.
Ca4+.
 

 137. 
A mutual electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of different atoms that binds the atoms together is called a(n)
a.
dipole.
c.
chemical bond.
b.
Lewis structure.
d.
London force.
 

 138. 
As atoms bond with each other, they
a.
increase their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter.
b.
decrease their potential energy, thus creating less-stable arrangements of matter.
c.
increase their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter.
d.
decrease their potential energy, thus creating more-stable arrangements of matter.
 

 139. 
The chemical bond formed when two atoms share electrons is called a(n)
a.
ionic bond.
c.
Lewis structure.
b.
orbital bond.
d.
covalent bond.
 

 140. 
If two covalently bonded atoms are identical, the bond is
a.
nonpolar covalent.
c.
nonionic.
b.
polar covalent.
d.
coordinate covalent.
 

 141. 
When atoms share electrons, the electrical attraction of an atom for the electrons is called the atom's
a.
electron affinity.
c.
resonance.
b.
electronegativity.
d.
hybridization.
 

 142. 
If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
a.
nonpolar.
c.
ionic.
b.
polar.
d.
dipolar.
 

 143. 
Most chemical bonds are
a.
purely ionic.
c.
partly ionic and partly covalent.
b.
purely covalent.
d.
metallic.
 

 144. 
The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the greater the percentage of
a.
ionic character.
c.
metallic character.
b.
covalent character.
d.
electron sharing.
 

 145. 
Bonds that are between 5% and 50% ionic are considered
a.
ionic.
c.
polar covalent.
b.
pure covalent.
d.
nonpolar covalent.
 

 146. 
The pair of elements that forms a bond with the least ionic character is
a.
Na and Cl.
c.
O and Cl.
b.
H and Cl.
d.
Br and Cl.
 

 147. 
The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a.
polar covalent.
c.
nonpolar covalent.
b.
ionic.
d.
pure covalent.
 

 148. 
The percentage ionic character and the type of bond in Br2 (electronegativity for Br is 2.8) is
a.
0%; nonpolar covalent.
c.
0%; pure ionic.
b.
100%; polar covalent.
d.
100%; pure ionic.
 

 149. 
In which of these compounds is the bond between the atoms NOT a nonpolar covalent bond?
a.
Cl2
c.
HCl
b.
H2
d.
O2
 

 150. 
When a covalent bond forms, as the distance between two atoms decreases, the potential energy
a.
increases.
c.
remains constant.
b.
decreases.
d.
becomes zero.
 

 151. 
A covalent bond forms when the attraction between two atoms is balanced by repulsion and the potential energy is
a.
at a maximum.
c.
at a minimum.
b.
zero.
d.
equal to the kinetic energy.
 

 152. 
Bond energy is the energy
a.
required to break a chemical bond.
c.
required to form a chemical bond.
b.
released when a chemical bond breaks.
d.
absorbed when a chemical bond forms.
 

 153. 
In a molecule of fluorine, the two shared electrons give each fluorine atom ____ electron(s) in the outer energy level.
a.
1
c.
8
b.
2
d.
32
 

 154. 
In drawing a Lewis structure, the central atom is the
a.
atom with the greatest mass.
c.
atom with the fewest electrons.
b.
atom with the highest atomic number.
d.
least electronegative atom.
 

 155. 
To draw a Lewis structure, one must know the
a.
number of valence electrons in each atom.
b.
atomic mass of each atom.
c.
bond length of each atom.
d.
ionization energy of each atom.
 

 156. 
The substance whose Lewis structure shows three covalent bonds is
a.
H2O.
c.
NH3.
b.
CH2Cl2.
d.
CCl4.
 

 157. 
How many double bonds are in the Lewis structure for hydrogen fluoride, HF?
a.
none
c.
two
b.
one
d.
three
 

 158. 
How many extra electrons are in the Lewis structure of the phosphate ion, PO43–?
a.
0
c.
3
b.
2
d.
4
 

 159. 
How many electrons must be shown in the Lewis structure of the hydroxide ion, OH–?
a.
1
c.
9
b.
8
d.
10
 
 
semexamreviewfall20_files/i1630000.jpg
 

 160. 
What is the Lewis structure for carbon tetraiodide, which contains one carbon atom and four iodine atoms?
a.
A
c.
C
b.
B
d.
D
 

 161. 
Chemists once believed that a molecule that contains a single bond and a double bond split its time existing as one of these two structures. This effect became known as
a.
alternation.
c.
Lewis structure.
b.
resonance.
d.
single-double bonding.
 

 162. 
The chemical formula for an ionic compound represents the
a.
number of atoms in each molecule.
b.
number of ions in each molecule.
c.
simplest ratio of the combined ions that balances total charges.
d.
total number of ions in the crystal lattice.
 

 163. 
A formula unit of an ionic compound
a.
is an independent unit that can be isolated and studied.
b.
is the simplest ratio of ions that balances total charge.
c.
describes the crystal lattice.
d.
all of the above
 

 164. 
In the NaCl crystal, each Na+ and Cl– ion has clustered around it ____ of the oppositely charged ions.
a.
1
c.
4
b.
2
d.
6
 

 165. 
The ions in an ionic compound are organized into a(n)
a.
molecule.
c.
polyatomic ion.
b.
Lewis structure.
d.
crystal.
 

 166. 
In a crystal, the valence electrons of adjacent ions
a.
repel each other.
c.
neutralize each other.
b.
attract each other.
d.
have no effect on each other.
 

 167. 
The lattice energy is a measure of the
a.
strength of an ionic bond.
c.
strength of a covalent bond.
b.
strength of a metallic bond.
d.
number of ions in a crystal.
 

 168. 
Because the particles in ionic compounds are more strongly attracted than in molecular compounds, the melting points of ionic compounds are
a.
equal for all ionic compounds.
b.
lower than melting points of molecular compounds.
c.
higher than melting points of molecular compounds.
d.
approximately equal to room temperature.
 

 169. 
Ionic compounds are brittle because the strong attractive forces
a.
allow the layers to shift easily.
b.
cause the compound to vaporize easily.
c.
keep the surface dull.
d.
hold the layers in relatively fixed positions.
 

 170. 
The properties of both ionic and molecular compounds are related to the
a.
lattice energies of the compounds.
b.
strengths of attraction between the particles in the compounds.
c.
number of covalent bonds each contains.
d.
mobile electrons that they contain.
 

 171. 
A chemical bond formed by the attraction between positive ions and surrounding mobile electrons is a(n)
a.
nonpolar covalent bond.
c.
polar covalent bond.
b.
ionic bond.
d.
metallic bond.
 

 172. 
In the electron-sea model of a metallic bond,
a.
electrons are stationary.
b.
electrons are bonded to particular positive ions.
c.
some electrons are valence electrons and some are not.
d.
mobile electrons are shared by all the atoms.
 

 173. 
A metallic bond forms when positive ions attract
a.
stationary electrons.
c.
cations.
b.
nonvalence electrons.
d.
mobile electrons.
 

 174. 
Metals are malleable because the metallic bonding
a.
holds the layers of ions in rigid positions.
b.
does not produce ions.
c.
allows one plane of ions to slide past another.
d.
is easily broken.
 

 175. 
According to VSEPR theory, an AB2 molecule is
a.
trigonal planar.
c.
linear.
b.
tetrahedral.
d.
octahedral.
 

 176. 
According to VSEPR theory, the electrostatic repulsion between electron pairs surrounding an atom causes
a.
an electron sea to form.
b.
positive ions to form.
c.
these pairs to be separated as far as possible.
d.
light to reflect.
 

 177. 
According to VSEPR theory, the shape of an AB3 molecule is
a.
trigonal planar.
c.
linear.
b.
tetrahedral.
d.
bent.
 

 178. 
According to VSEPR theory, the structure of the ammonia molecule, NH3, is
a.
linear.
c.
pyramidal.
b.
bent.
d.
tetrahedral.
 

 179. 
Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen chloride molecule, HCl.
a.
tetrahedral
c.
bent
b.
linear
d.
trigonal planar
 

 180. 
Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the carbon tetraiodide molecule, CI4.
a.
tetrahedral
c.
bent
b.
linear
d.
trigonal planar
 

 181. 
Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the chlorate ion, ClO3–.
a.
trigonal planar
c.
trigonal pyramidal
b.
octahedral
d.
bent
 

 182. 
Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen sulfide molecule, H2S.
a.
tetrahedral
c.
bent
b.
linear
d.
octahedral
 

 183. 
The hybridized orbitals responsible for the bent shape of the water molecule are
a.
1s2 2s2.
c.
sp3.
b.
ps1.
d.
2s2 sp2.
 

 184. 
The hybridized orbitals responsible for the shape of the CH4 molecule are
a.
1s1 1p3.
c.
2s2 2p2.
b.
sp2.
d.
sp3.
 

 185. 
The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only polar molecule is
a.
CCl4.
c.
NH3.
b.
CO2.
d.
CH4.
 

 186. 
The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only nonpolar molecule is
a.
HCl.
c.
CO2.
b.
H2O.
d.
NH3.
 

 187. 
A molecule of hydrogen chloride is polar because
a.
it is composed of ions.
b.
it is magnetic.
c.
it contains metallic bonds.
d.
the chlorine attracts the shared electrons more strongly than does the hydrogen atom.
 

 188. 
Which formula does NOT represent a molecule?
a.
H2O (water)
c.
CO2 (carbon dioxide)
b.
NH3 (ammonia)
d.
NaCl (table salt)
 

 189. 
What is the formula for zinc fluoride?
a.
ZnF
c.
Zn2F
b.
ZnF2
d.
Zn2F3
 

 190. 
What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?
a.
AlSO4
c.
Al2(SO4)3
b.
Al2SO4
d.
Al(SO4)3
 

 191. 
What is the formula for tin(IV) chromate?
a.
Sn(CrO4)4
c.
Sn2(CrO4)4
b.
Sn2(CrO4)2
d.
Sn(CrO4)2
 

 192. 
Name the compound Ni(ClO3)2.
a.
nickel chlorate
c.
nickel chlorite
b.
nickel chloride
d.
nickel peroxide
 

 193. 
Name the compound Zn3(PO4)2.
a.
zinc potassium oxide
c.
zinc phosphate
b.
trizinc polyoxide
d.
zinc phosphite
 

 194. 
Name the compound Hg2(NO3)2.
a.
mercury(II) nitrate
c.
mercury(I) nitrate
b.
dimercury dinitrate
d.
mercuric nitrate
 

 195. 
Name the compound KClO3.
a.
potassium chloride
c.
potassium chlorate
b.
potassium trioxychlorite
d.
hypochlorite
 

 196. 
Name the compound Fe(NO2)2.
a.
iron(II) nitrate
c.
ferric nitrate
b.
iron(II) nitrite
d.
ferrous nitride
 

 197. 
Name the compound CuCO3.
a.
copper(I) carbonate
c.
cuprous carbide
b.
cupric trioxycarbide
d.
copper(II) carbonate
 

 198. 
What is the name of Sn3(PO4)4 under the Stock system of nomenclature?
a.
stannous phosphate
c.
tin(III) phosphate
b.
tin(IV) phosphate
d.
tin(II) phosphate
 

 199. 
Name the compound SiO2.
a.
silver oxide
c.
silicon dioxide
b.
silicon oxide
d.
monosilicon dioxide
 

 200. 
Name the compound N2O5.
a.
dinickel pentoxide
c.
neon oxide
b.
dinitrogen pentoxide
d.
nitric oxide
 

 201. 
In a compound, the algebraic sum of the oxidation numbers of all atoms equals
a.
0.
c.
8.
b.
1.
d.
the charge on the compound.
 



 
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